Let f(x) = tan x, Show that f(0) = f(π) but there is no number c in (0, π) such that f’© = 0. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?
Let f(x) = tan x, Show that f(0) = f(π) but there is no number c in (0, π) such that f’© = 0. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?