Let f(x)=1−x^{2/3}.

a. Show that f(−1)=f(1) but there is no number c in such that f′©=0.

b. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?

^{2/3}.

a. Show that f(−1)=f(1) but there is no number c in such that f′©=0.

b. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?